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by SideQuark
1151 days ago
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From your data, median and mean among OECD with state paid tertiary education is 42% and 43%. US is 51.2%. So the mean and median is around 20% less people with tertiary educations. When you say no significant difference, what is your threshold? 50% less people educated? 20% is a huge difference. |
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If I too were to play the data cherry picking game, I could point out that Norway is at 55%.
How does that prove anything?
It just disproves your unfounded assertion:
> Every free college country sends less of their people through college than the US
I really fail to see how any of this proves any causality between free college and lower or higher education rates.
But it seems you enjoy shifting goalposts, so perhaps we should end it here?