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by ummonk
1167 days ago
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It's definitely correct, and quite trivial to verify. It's possible it has been discovered before, but none of the proof compilations I've seen (e.g. cut-the-knot) has it, and the trigonometric proofs I can find involve using angle-sums (https://forumgeom.fau.edu/FG2009volume9/FG200925.pdf). This is definitely a much more elegant proof than the angle-sum proofs. |
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update: This video refers to another trigonometric proof that doesn't rely on sin^2 + cos^1 = 1. https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=p6j2nZKwf20
I would write a more modest abstract for this work. Just my $0.02.