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by tripletao 1180 days ago
> I think you're right that no bank can withstand a run of that magnitude,

They're not right. No bank could sell assets quickly enough to withstand such a run, but that's why the Fed serves as lender of last resort. Even under previous policy, the Fed would lend against the mark-to-market value of the collateral. So in theory any MTM-solvent bank could survive any run, so there was no incentive to start the run in the first place.

The SVB was MTM insolvent due to that excessive duration risk, so it couldn't do that. It's not the only MTM-insolvent bank (see the link in my other comment), but that in combination with its unusually high fraction of uninsured and thus flighty deposits was apparently enough to start the run.

1 comments

Thanks for the posted paper. But if SVB was able to borrow against the mark to market value of their collateral, I don't understand why they couldn't remain solvent. Because they had plenty of assets, even at mtm value to cover a 50% run. Even all the way to nearly a 90% run, it seems.