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by rnosov 1181 days ago
That would be anticompetitive practice that is actually against the law in many countries[1]. In the unlikely event of OpenAI ever engaging in such things they will be sued into oblivion.

[1] https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Refusal_to_deal
1 comments
iudqnolq 1181 days ago
No it wouldn't. Wikipedia has a crap definition that inexplicably focuses on cartels where multiple companies coordinate the refusal, which this definitely isn't. The FTC has a better definition for US law [1].

Companies routinely ban users for ToS violations. Just look at any thread about Google on here to see people complaining about it.

[1]: https://www.ftc.gov/advice-guidance/competition-guidance/gui...

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rnosov 1181 days ago
The FTC link has an example of the only newspaper in town refusing to deal with customers who are also running ads on a radio station. Do you think if the newspaper dressed such refusal as a ToS violation it would fly with FTC?

Google might be banning people for enforceable violations of their ToS but imagine the uproar if they banned a Bing engineer for using Google search to find solutions for some Bing problem (which is similar to the problem here). The upside for Google or OpenAI would be somewhat limited but the downside is almost boundless.

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