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by fuoqi
1186 days ago
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What exactly is incorrect in my explanation? Are you saying that bank's liabilities can exceed its assets for a prolonged time? Or that reserves at a central bank do not pay interest? The second order effects (such as loan at one banks creates deposit at another, meaning M2 gets essentially "printed"), which are important for monetary policy and regulation, are not relevant when we view operation of a bank in isolation. |
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Banks operate by discount. You take a thing to the bank, the bank values it and then a financial asset is created which the bank buys by creating an advance of its own liabilities against it. The bank then books the assets (the mortgage) against the advance. The bank's balance sheet is expanded.
The individual then 'pays' people with the advance - which does nothing other than change the ownership on that advance. When the payment process is complete we stop calling it an advance and start calling it a deposit.
You don't even need somebody else's money to start a bank. The Bank of England was started by issuing shares to subscribers and booking them on the asset side as nil paid.
A deposit 'moving' to another bank is really the destination bank taking over the deposit in the source bank, or delegating that to the central bank via a centralised clearance process.
Bank capital, either equity or notes, is convincing somebody with a deposit to swap it for another liability that has less security.
Much of the problems we have with banking and the view against it is because of the persistence of the Monetarist view that they pick up bag of coins from somebody and pass them on to somebody else. There are no bags of coins, and there is no passing them on. Never has been, never will be.