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by viking1066 1193 days ago
It would make sense to correct for home ownership rate. With higher rates of home ownership, a higher debt is justified.

For example USA and Germany seems to have about the same level of household debt, but USA has 65% home ownership rate, while Germany has only 51%.

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_countries_by_home_owne...

The other interesting thing is that South Europe in general has a longer history of financing public works like churches, than Northern Europe, but in terms of household debt, that relationship seems inverted.