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by selectodude
1194 days ago
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The depositors are getting 100% of their money because the fed is lending against their assets at par. [1] The FDIC can be confident that they'll be able to make everybody whole because their assets exceed their liabilities. The Fed is going to hold the assets to maturity and get paid back by the Federal Government. "Any losses to the Deposit Insurance Fund to support uninsured depositors will be recovered by a special assessment on banks, as required by law." is legalese, nothing more. [1] https://www.federalreserve.gov/newsevents/pressreleases/mone... |
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And FMV is less than par, so that's an undercollateralized loan. That's another component of the subsidy to SVB depositors, and also a subsidy to shareholders of other banks that overexposed themselves to long-term debt (though too late for the SVB shareholders). There's no rational economic basis for this change in policy, and it goes against all modern central banking theory.
https://twitter.com/DanielaGabor/status/1635167154042716161
I hope you don't think holding the bond to maturity somehow means the loss isn't real? All bonds get held to maturity by someone (unless they default, but that's not the problem here). The FMV of a bond is ultimately determined by the value of those cash flows to that person; so if the FMV went down, then that should be a clue that value was fundamentally lost, regardless of who holds it.
The SVB's problem was that their HTM accounting treatment didn't model economic reality. The government is leaning into that fiction somewhat here, out of some combination of favoritism and concern for systemic risk. That doesn't make the fiction true though, and it doesn't mean the loss disappears; it just means the loss gets socialized.