It's possible the bank is only a "little bit" insolvent. Is it not possible that the difference can be made up by wiping out shareholders and giving unsecured bondholders a haircut?
> Is it not possible that the difference can be made up by wiping out shareholders
In the US it's illegal to do anything that would be "bad" for shareholders. It's quite literally the law that CEOs must return a profit for shareholders (or attempt to). The FDIC however has no such requirements, so while the bank itself can't wipe out shareholders, the FDIC can do it without care.
Publicly traded companies will ALWAYS put shareholders above anyone else. It's the primary reason I'm very much against banks being publicly held. Just as I feel it's immoral for healthcare both insurance, pharma, and hospitals to be publicly traded entities.
In the US it's illegal to do anything that would be "bad" for shareholders. It's quite literally the law that CEOs must return a profit for shareholders (or attempt to). The FDIC however has no such requirements, so while the bank itself can't wipe out shareholders, the FDIC can do it without care.
Publicly traded companies will ALWAYS put shareholders above anyone else. It's the primary reason I'm very much against banks being publicly held. Just as I feel it's immoral for healthcare both insurance, pharma, and hospitals to be publicly traded entities.