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by scott_w 5255 days ago
It's not impossible. Levitt discusses issues like this in Freakonomics.

Just because all crime falls over a period of time doesn't discount the effect. It doesn't even mean the effect of income disparity is minor. If the rate of crime falling in countries with a lowering income disparity is vastly higher than the rate of crime falling in countries with high income disparity, then that suggests a link that can be followed up on statistically.