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by benmccann 1195 days ago
> And it's a lot of money (e.g. 30% loss on $200bn is about $600 per US resident household).

I'm not sure where you got this number, but it's different than what I've seen. Yes, SVB had $200B in deposits, but it had $15B in unrealized losses. The FDIC is probably contributing $12B as roughly 6% of deposits were insured. That means the gap is probably $3B if the government is to step in, which is very different than the $60B you're suggesting. If these instruments can't be held to maturity then the losses may be greater as many of them are illiquid and would have to be sold at a discount, but the government has the liquidity to avoid that.

3 comments

You're right, the gap is likely much smaller.

I did a quick calculation based on:

- $200bn deposits (on which we agree)

- press reports that Jefferies and hedge funds are offering to buy claims at up to 70c on the dollar (suggesting 30% loss)

Apparently the offer from hedge funds gives them a substantial profit.
Does the FDIC work like that?

I imagined they would sell assets for the insured. And then sell more for the uninsured. If that process didn't cover the insured, they would bring money.

In this case, the insured are well covered by the assets, so the FDIC won't bring money.

We have a $12B difference of opinion here. Although, more generally, I agree from initial reports the assets - deposits gap does not seem to reach 30%. We should know more tonight and Monday morning.

The FDIC will pay off insured deposits from bank assets.

Those deposits get first call on the assets. The FDIC only chips in if those assets aren't enough.