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by bjacokes
1196 days ago
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You're mistaking assets and equity. A 40% discount in asset value absolutely would wipe out shareholders. To be a bit blunt, given your thesis here I would advise against trading in individual stocks, at least in the banking sector. |
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I did make a mistake in previous comment and used the word assets instead of Total Equity. The same principle applies -- FDIC will sell their assets, likely at a discount.
Depending on the discount of those assets will determine how much total equity they have. Currently, their assets over liabilities is large, so there would have to be significant underselling of assets.
My original thesis made it clear I was talking about 40% discount on their equity, I didn't make it clear in the subsequent thread.
I.e. if bought at the last price ($40) their assets priced them in some range between $150-220/share (if they were sold off). So they would have to have a significant discount to their assets in the last 2 months since they reported to lose that much.
In my book and using Graham's term, I was valuing this as a cigar-butt company.