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by boomboomsubban
1225 days ago
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I've always attributed that to the full Roman empire, though it probably was both, as I was under the impression Basileus was more commonly used when speaking Greek like the Byzantines did. I think this comes from my modern perspective, where I think "nobody considers the Byzantines 'Roman' though that's what they called themselves." Of course that wouldn't be true in 1000 AD. |
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