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by avianlyric
1232 days ago
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> If you've ever set prices for a product, you would see this yourself. Price*Volume=Revenue If your market is completely elastic, then sure. But only hypothetical markets (and perhaps some fungible goods) are completely elastic. Most markets don’t have a perfect linear correlation between price and demand. The other things you’ve completely ignored, is the fact that interchange impacts all sellers equally. So as a consumer you can’t avoid the interchange tax by shopping around, which in turn will increase a consumer’s willingness to pay higher prices. This may come as a surprise to you, but consumers don’t have a perfect way to calculating the value of something. Ironically, the perceived value of a product is highly influenced by both its price, and the price of its competitors (with Veblen goods being the extreme). So if you introduce a flat 2% price increase across all sellers, then it’s reasonable to expect consumers value perception to increase by a similar amount. |
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That's exactly my point.. You can't change the price without changing the volume.. and that's why you cant pass on costs. The item is already priced at the optimal point in the price-demand curve. Moving the price based on cost increases, only results in lost revenue. The only companies that are able to do that are the ones that haven't priced their goods correctly to being with.
"then it’s reasonable to expect consumers value perception to increase by a similar amount."
You seriously think consumers know when the prices of the inputs for an item change? And then they adjust their perceptions of the item based on their detailed knowledge of how the product is made? The average consumer doesn't know how anything is made or what any of the costs of an item are. Go ask some random people what they think a credit card costs merchants... nearly guaranteed you only get wrong answers.