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by NoThisIsMe 1234 days ago
Could you expand on this, or provide a source? I don't see how physics could yield a pure math result like that.
1 comments

Other way around. Of course physics has nothing to do with whether a theorem is true or false - but it has everything to do with whether our universe satisfies that theorem's hypotheses.
I'm also struggling to make sense of what you're saying. Non-local measurement outcomes have very little to do with causality. Are you arguing against specific interpretations such as Bohmian mechanics, which require privileged space–time foliations?