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by yummyfajitas 5280 days ago
Your entire post is a logical fallacy: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Appeal_to_consequences

Further, it's not even a correct use of the Appeal to Consequences fallacy. If the natural causes hypothesis is true, it does not logically follow that anyone should be oppressed.

It does, however, logically follow from the "natural causes" hypothesis that you can't have both equal rights and equal proportions (i.e., either you discriminate against men, or you have fewer women).