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by moloch-hai 1235 days ago
Apparently, assuming it was "influenced by" only one "older writing system". But there is no basis for any such assumption. It appears to be purely a matter of their own convenience, wholly disconnected from anything in the script.
1 comments

What is your statement based on? Your analysis of runic scripts?
The origins of the runic script are not established. If they resembled something else strongly enough to say there was just the one, we would not be discussing this.
> If they resembled something else strongly enough to say there was just the one, we would not be discussing this.

That doesn't make sense to me. Maybe they did and you don't know about it.

Maybe read up just a bit? It is the biggest open question.