[93po]

> Are you implying that by providing severance pay of 90 days he is both complying with the 60 day limit and the severance pay?

Yes

> He is legally required to provide back-pay for those 60 days

I agree, but I don't think severance is necessarily independent from pedantic point of view, and technically severance doesn't "have" to be anything - it's whatever he wants it to be as long as it's at least the 60 days. In this instance I believe he provided 90 day severance both to fulfill his legal obligation and also threw on another month for goodwill.

[Timon3]

Do you have any legal resources that describe this as a possibility? I see no overlap between back-pay and severance, but I might be overlooking something. Though I hope you're not just arguing from a "technical" and "pedantic" point of view, since that doesn't have any meaning in the legal world.