Hacker News new | ask | show | jobs
by mjochim 1255 days ago
It is not uncommon for a language to borrow two words from one source language in different centuries. The two borrowings can then follow different mechanisms, perhaps because something about the target language has changed in the meantime. Or maybe because knowledge of the source language was widespread in the target language community when one word was borrowed but not when the other one was borrowed.
1 comments

i'm trying to think of an example. do you have an example?

i can come up with a composite word whose two parts are non obvious and obvious, but they're not loan words : were+wolf, with were germanic cousin to Latin vir and wolf obvious.

> Many words of French origin were borrowed twice or more. There were at least three periods of borrowing: one that occurred shortly after the Norman Conquest and came from Norman French, one in the thirteenth and fourteenth centuries from standard (Parisian) French at the time when English nobles were switching from French to English, and a third one during the sixteenth to nineteenth century, when France was at the height of its power and international influence. Examples of doublets from the first and second periods are catch vs. chase, cattle vs. chattel, and warden vs. guardian. More recent borrowings are often distinguished by maintaining the French spelling and pronunciation, e.g. chef (vs. chief), pâté (vs. paste), fête (vs. feast).

https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Doublet_(linguistics)#Norman_v...

thank you