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by qwytw
1267 days ago
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Because it's self evident. Historically extreme inequality generally led to social and economic instability (e.g. the collapse of the Roman republic, French/Russian revolutions/what is happening now) and to misallocation of resources and other suboptimal outcomes. Obviously aiming for absolute equality would probably be more harmful. But there are plenty of arguments on why excessively high inequality is bad for the society as a whole. If you never bothered to read them and resort to silly conjectures like: "well, it's wrong because people kept saying so since I was young, duh!". Well... |
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It's not self-evident, as there are plenty of counter-arguments, including the Chinese Empire, the Egyptian Empire, the British Empire, the Caste System in India (going strong for over 3 millennia), and so on. Most of human history has been a period of extreme inequality. All you've got is a handful of revolutions in the last 500 years?
You actually need to make a moral argument. For example, slavery is bad not because it caused the the Civil War, but because it's morally wrong (and there's plenty of arguments here). I've also yet to see a very crystalized train of thought as to why inequality (maybe even extreme inequality) is morally wrong.