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by neontomo
1279 days ago
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Sorry mate, but an umlaut does not represent the same thing as a diaeresis! I don't know what you're arguing for other than that the diaeresis is archaic, which does not conflict with what I said at all. My argument was that the ë used in Russian is different from the ë used in English (and French) because they represent different things, which is exactly what you said too. |
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> Sorry mate, but an umlaut does not represent the same thing as a diaeresis!
You're going to need to decide what you're talking about. The diacritic of two dots positioned above a letter is most often called "umlaut" in English. It is not normally called "diaeresis", but sometimes it is.
There is a phonological phenomenon also called "umlaut", which is related to the name for the mark in that the mark was historically used in German to indicate the phenomenon. The relationship is dead now; German ö is just a different letter from German o.
Don't get confused between https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Umlaut_(linguistics) and https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Umlaut_(diacritic) .