[TreeRingCounter]

> All norms on finite-dimensional vector spaces are equivalent

How are you going to tell me that an L1 norm is equivalent to an L2 norm, for example?

[brewmarche]

This is a standard result which you can look up in most text books, or here on StackExchange: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/57686/understanding...

In the end it doesn’t whether we go to infinity in one norm or the other.

Note that I am talking about finite dimensions, so I guess you didn’t mean the L^p norms or \ell^p for integrable functions or sequences but the finite-dimensional p-norms.

[TreeRingCounter]

This theorem is completely irrelevant - the equivalence relation described by the theorem does not imply an equivalence between ordinal relationships imposed by different choice of norm. Also, "tails" isn't the same as "at infinity".