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by sokoloff 1286 days ago
An hour before he died, Grandpa George could have sold the house and excluded $500K of capital gains (if his spouse died within the prior two years) or $250K otherwise. He could then pass his estate tax-free to heirs (assuming it was a typical "normal person sized" estate). In that case, the value of the house is now in [stepped-up/not taxed] dollar bills.

Why should the fact that he transferred a minute after he died rather than 60 minutes before make a difference to the taxes owed? Sell it for a fair market price to Alice a minute before you die, then transfer the proceeds of the sale to her as part of your estate. Same effect.

1 comments

I don't care about excluding up to $500k. I care that billionaires entire fortune is excluded when they die. We can go round and round about which loopholes make sense. But in the end I don't think there is any reason that billions of dollars of equities should be excluded from paying capital gains taxes just because their owner died. You shouldn't get a tax advantage for dying. Selling everything you own the day after you die should have the same tax implications as selling everything the day before you die.
I care more about what happens to the estates and heirs of the 3M less than millionaire regular Americans that die every year and what happens to their estates than I do about the ~15 billionaires that die each year.

> Selling everything you own the day after you die should have the same tax implications as selling everything the day before you die.

I agree with that . That's exactly why the vast majority of family homes would be passed along tax-free, with stepped-up basis (as was my point above: "the basis should be as of the date of death, with any taxes due owed from the estate, not the heirs" [which I thought earlier you "Couldn't disagree more"]).