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by princeb
1281 days ago
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but the wealth gap only started in the last 600 years or so. why didn't it "track" the other 6000 years between 5000BC and 1000-1300AD when science, philosophy, and literature were dominated by the mesopotamians, egyptians, indians, chinese, ummayads, persians, byzantines, ottomans? |
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Perhaps it's more accurate to say that this factor is conducive to forming empires, not just cultures. Of the four classical cradles of civilization (China, Egypt, India, Mesopotamia), only half fit this winter criterion, so it's clearly not a prohibitive factor for the formation of a civilization; perhaps just for its technological development and dominion over others.