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by ch4s3
1278 days ago
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You're very much ignoring the actual historical context and the writing of the founders. That even half of the new nation outlawed slavery was pretty unique in the world of 1776 where slavery was globally ubiquitous. Article 1 section 9 of the constitution set a sort of cooling off period after which congress could end the Atlantic slave trade, which it did. The writing of the framers from the time makes it clear that their intention was to end importation in 1808 under the theory that it would cause slavery to end. They were trying to do so without fracturing their unstable union, it was a compromise just like the 3/5 compromise. But again, this was an unusually emancipatory direction for any new nation in the 18th century when every other nation had slavery, serfdom, or both. I didn't address native peoples or genocide in my previous comment. But, if I were to do so I would probably argue that it was mostly carried out in the 19th century and was not a feature of the founding but its not an area of history I feel well enough versed in to make a super strong argument off the top of my head. But that's not even the point, I'm arguing that the OP is acting in bad faith by arguing that CHina's current crimes are excused by the bad behavior of the US 250 years ago. Modern day slavery and genocide on the scale that exists in Xinjang are inexcusable and unparalleled since WWII. The US has made moral progress and the CCP is committing crimes against humanity. |
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