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by psychphysic 1287 days ago
You're applying a logically fallacy here.

For every vocal critic there are many more tolerant silent critics.

I.e. your sample is skewed if you think about the people who "hate" the other side.

Instead you need to sample the entire population the most tolerant won't even be voting or keeping an eye on politics.

Please note, Ive only read the title not the article. I'm just that damn high IQ and tolerant.

1 comments

There's no fallacy here. I didn't mention the silent people. There are some. There does not appear to be a strong enough effect to have a noticeable difference in the ratios between the group with cognitive ability and those without.
You're making the same fallacy again thinking the sample you have of politically intolerant people represents the wider population.

Only 66% of Americans voted

That means 33% are likely highly politically tolerant. So tolerant they can't be bothered to vote.

Even if Intelegence and Political Tolerance had nearly perfect positive correlation you would expect even extremely intolerant people to show full spectrum of IQ and the converse.

Add on that, the discourse is dominated by the extremely intolerant and you get your claim.