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> the newly generated money has to be backed by somebody's deposit Ok. Suppose I am a bank, and pg deposits $10. Then I lend to you, lesourac $9. This $9 is "backed" by pg's deposit. But I, the bank, only hold $1, and you, lesourac, hold $9. In your head, you hold $9. In pg's head, he has $10 of assets. There are $19 of imagined assets running around, even though the "real" assets are only $10. It's all good until pg pulls his $10 sooner than I expected, or if you, lesourac declare bankruptcy and default on your loan, and unable to pay back those $9. This is why bankruptcies are deflationary. We could have a safer banking system if loans were from individual to individual, possibly mediated by a bank, and the lender fully accepted the risk of default. |
Nobody is arguing that the Money Multiplier [1] doesn't exist. Nobody is arguing that a bank run won't cause loss of deposit (ignoring FDIC).
The argument is whether a bank takes in say $10 of deposits to then loan out $10 OR if a bank "generates" $10 at-will to make a loan of $10.
[1]: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Money_multiplier