|
|
|
|
|
|
by HWR_14
1307 days ago
|
|
|
You mean, because they were merely negligently misleading instead of intentionally misleading? Yes, it's seems to not be under the current definition of fraud. I thought we were discussing a counterfactual that the OP suggested where negligent endorsements were actionable under a law similar to fraud. Fraud was used by me as an example of the 1st amendment being okay with certain commercial speech being actionable. |
|
|