[consumer451]

> For example: Australian Gas consumers pay more to use natural gas in Australia, than people in Japan, using Australian LNG.

Would it be fair to call that blatant corruption, or could some argument be made that it is not?

[fjdiccf]

https://www.thejuicemedia.com/derp/

Yes.

[0xy]

Only if you can show a population dense country like Japan spends comparative amounts on infrastructure to supply the gas than a population sparse country like Australia.

In other words, only if you're lying is it corruption. Costs are not like for like, not even close. The gas itself is relatively cheap. The infrastructure and OpEx is not.

[Panzer04]

I imagine this is usually because these countries sign long-term supply agreements at fixed prices. This is good because it guarantees stability of demand for companies, but obviously bad if gas prices go up after signing said agreement.