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by Enginerrrd
1315 days ago
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Just to elaborate on this since I had to think about it and I might save someone else the effort: Let M = Makes the statement
Let R = Feels Responsible
Notation: ~R = Not R Answering OP's questions 1 & 2: I think it's safe to assume P(M|R) = P(M|~R) = 1
So P(M) = 1 So Bayes' theorem simplifies as follows:
P(R|M) = P(M|R)P(R)/PM) = P(R) Thus, OP's point is that the statement tells us essentially nothing about the probability he actually feels responsible or empathetic, and I agree. |
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Certainly with a prior that the events are independent, then you won't be able to update your probability of R by knowing that M did happen, any more than knowing last nights lotto numbers would probability of R.
In reality, things are even worse, as assuming independence is not fully reasonable, so you will end up with uncertainly about how or if the variables relate. One could assume some form of meta probability distribution of various ways the variables could relate, but then direct application of Bayes formula not feasible. You would still in that scenario not be learning much if anything useful about P(R).