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by williamcotton
1338 days ago
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> Thus, if this tools spits out someone else's code verbatim it is a definite copyright infringement. That is not true. It can be verbatim and not a copyright violation if it can be shown that the expression in question is strictly utilitarian! I literally provided a quote from that AFC article that says this! There's even precedent that prior art nullifies a copyright claim, as seen in Johannsongs-Publishing, Ltd. v. Rolf Lovland: "Johannsongs failed to offer admissible evidence to rebut Ferrara’s analysis, so there is no genuine dispute of material fact as to his conclusions that Söknuður and You Raise Me Up are not substantially similar and most of their similarities are attributable to prior art." And this was about music, not software, which has always sat uncomfortably between utility and expression, if only because it is some kind of writing. No one is claiming copyrights over Photoshop filter settings or other inputs manipulated by sliders or buttons! |
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However, the statement was only for cases of verbatim copies produced by Copilot. The AFC Wikipedia article states that "Proving copyright infringement requires proving both ownership of the copyright and that copying took place." The 3 detailed tests developed in that case appear to be "expand" the determination of infringement to close potential loopholes where, while there is not a verbatim copy, infringement is still deemed to have occurred because of "substantial similarity". e.g. someone copies a program but changes the variable names.
So where is the line between infringement and not, in cases where there is an exact copy of a code fragment? Can we still use the utilitarian defense or is that only used by the court to exclude portions of the code in the tests for "substantial similarity"?