Not sure why you feel the need to respond with that sort of hasty, passive aggressive suggestion.
The way I read their comments is that it's akin to hearing that someone learned Spanish (which has different ordering than english) as their first language and asking, "So you can't read a book?". It comes off as wildly naive, with a flavor of offensiveness that you seem to be accusing me of.
Friend, I think you're really stretching to be angry towards me and in the process you're deeply and ironically completely missing the point I was originally attempting to make.
At no point did I even say whether I believe they do or whether I believe they don't have a hard time reading. I genuinely, from the bottom of my heart, don't understand how you're interpreting my words as if I'm incapable understanding that barriers exist. You're effectively implying that I'm a bigot for thinking no challenges exist, when that's not a position I've even remotely taken. Like, of course challenges exist and I'm stunned that anyone would even begin to consider that challenges wouldn't exist!
Word for word, the question I responded to is, "So deaf people can't read books?"
My question was in response to the asinine, bordering offensive, question of whether deaf people hold the intellectual capacity to learn how to read. They did not ask if it's difficult for deaf people to read, nor did they ask any question about what challenges there are. Their question was whether it's an impossibility for deaf people to read, fullstop.
The way I read their comments is that it's akin to hearing that someone learned Spanish (which has different ordering than english) as their first language and asking, "So you can't read a book?". It comes off as wildly naive, with a flavor of offensiveness that you seem to be accusing me of.