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by pazimzadeh 1343 days ago
If that's the case, then why was there no difference in mortality in the study?

Possible reasons I thought of:

- cancer cells metastasize/spread much earlier than we previously thought (https://www.statnews.com/2016/12/14/cancer-cells-spread-meta...)

- what if the presence of polyps is not all bad? i.e. maybe they keep the immune system in a tumor-responsive state, or they locally deplete nutrients that would otherwise feed other pre-cancerous cells?