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by whatshisface
1354 days ago
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Two bayesians can come up with different answers if they use different priors, there are rarely clear-cut rules for choice of prior (if there is a commonly accepted value, how much weight do you put on it?). Two frequentists can come up with different answers if they define their ensembles differently. A frequentist and a bayesian can come up with the same answer if the implicit prior built in to the ensemble matches the explicit prior adopted by the bayesian. Since bayesians understand that they can't trace back their probability updates all the way back to a single ultimate prior, they do not actually talk about distributions over the quantity of interest either. Ultimately it's the same as what a frequentist would do. When a bayesian lets a somewhat arbitrarily adopted prior stand in for the "ultimate prior," so that they can interpret their answer as a distribution over the variable of interest, they are not doing anything differently from when a frequentist fudges the exact concepts and treats their answer about the degree to which the model would predict the measured outcomes as if it was the probability of the model being true. There are no schools of statistics that offer an unqualified "probability that the model is true," and that may be philosophically impossible AFAIK. |
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And also that the answers refer to different things. Bayesian methods depend on the prior probablity distribution chosen for the parameter of interest and produce a posterior probability distribution for it [1]. Frequentist methods have no concept of probability distribution regarding the parameter of interest at all.
So long!
[1] "Since bayesians understand that they can't trace back their probability updates all the way back to a single ultimate prior, they do not actually talk about distributions over the quantity of interest either." I'm having issues to understand that though. If priors and posteriors are not "distributions over the quantity of interest" what are they about?