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by thelema314
5310 days ago
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I have a problem with the idea behind this - there's no proof that the coin is biased; even flipping it a hundred times and getting the same result is possible with an unbiased coin. All that statistics gives you is the probability of having a result at least this extreme with an unbiased coin. If this probability is low enough (often 1 in 20 or 1 in 100, but sometimes as low as 1 in 5), the "hypothesis" of the coin being unbiased is rejected, but this rejection will happen erroneously 1 in 20 or 100 or 5 times. As exemplified by the XKCD cartoon: http://xkcd.com/882/ |
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If you subscribe to frequentist statistics and use the null hypothesis of "coin is not biased", yes. But if you're a Bayesian you can compute the probability that the coin bias is greater than a given amount.