[mapremap]

How is that policing the police? Are disparities supposed to be evidence of something nefarious going on? Given that there are fundamental distinctions between members in different groups (otherwise they would be in the same group) and almost certainly many other non-fundamental distinctions that correlate with the group-defining distinction, is it not entirely plausible that there should be disparities in police statistics even when police act appropriately 100% of the time?

[josh-pdap]

I will say that we are not wading into this. We focus on accessibility; if you point to a big pile of ugly data, the first thing that will happen is that a bunch of very smart people will analyze it. We’re trying to make the big pile, which is currently in like half a million small piles.

[HideousKojima]

>is it not entirely plausible that there should be disparities in police statistics even when police act appropriately 100% of the time?

The National Crime Victimization Survey says yes. Also any article you see trying to debunk FBI crime stats but doesn't mention the NCVS (and how the NCVS largely corroborates the FBI stats) is either ignorant or willfully deceiving you.