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by wbsss4412
1377 days ago
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Setting aside the fact that your own measure means that 42% of Americans own zero shares, meaning that it is already not representative. The fact that 58% of Americans own a share does not imply that they are shareholders of every single one of the ~6,000 companies listed on the public markets in the US. Further, 10% of Americans hold 89% of the stocks in the US, and therefore as many voting shares. So yes, I do mean the US. I’ll reiterate: it is absurd to imply that “the public” in reference to shareholders is somehow synonymous with “the public” in reference to voters in America. |
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You don't need it to be representative, just to form majority. 51% is more than sufficient. 58% provides a healthy margin.
> The fact that 58% of Americans own a share does not imply that they are shareholders of every single one of the ~6,000 companies listed on the public markets in the US.
Should it imply it? I don't see the relevance.
> Further, 10% of Americans hold 89% of the stocks in the US, and therefore as many voting shares.
Fun fact, I guess. I don't see the relevance here either.
Unless you're suggesting that 10% of the population is more likely to speak to representatives on the regular, not hide behind a computer on HN all day while assuming their representative is a mind reader, thus being disproportionally represented? I could definitely see that being true based on my anecdotal observations, although I lack the data to confirm.
> it is absurd to imply that “the public” in reference to shareholders is somehow synonymous with “the public” in reference to voters in America.
If you make the false assumption that the public requires 100% support to do anything. Back in the real world...