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by nhaehnle
5315 days ago
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We are actually largely in agreement. If you reread my comment that you replied to, you'll see that I was writing about the "real income / labor productivity" quotient. The point is that the exchange rate with which countries adopted the Euro was more or less appropriate when it was set. Since then, the different development of the countries has changed the level of the exchange rate that would be appropriate if the countries still used different currencies. So the question is: has the picture of corruption in Germany vs. Greece changed significantly in the last 10 years? Has the unit labor cost (which is real income / labor productivity) changed significantly between Germany and Greece? Those are the questions you need to ask to understand where the differential is coming from. |
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They managed to secure a consensus and everyone (labor, capital and the state) is reaping the rewards.
In southern and eastern Europe, the unions an "leftist forces" managed to blow a hole in any attempt to reform pension and labor markets.
The key argument is that Germany giving in to these forces would mean a perpetuation of the root problem.
The way I see it this is a family issue, where father refuses to support one of his crack addicted kids, while the mother pleads "Please, you are breaking the family apart." Forgetting that there were previous confrontations in which she sided with the kid and didn't support the fathers demand that the kid goes on a rehab.