Suffice to say that I don't find "it doesn't fit comfortably in the mouth of an English speaker" to be a good basis on which to form conclusions about how Latin speakers would decline their vocabulary.
Isn't the question how English speakers should form plurals for their vocabulary, though? Nobody is arguing that you should use "viruses" as the plural when writing articles in Latin.
I mean, despite being Greek, I don't particularly object to the fact that most of the Greek loanwords in English fail to fully follow Greek grammar when people speak English. For example, phobias rather than phoboi or phobioi has become the accepted plural of phobia. Heck, people don't even decline my name properly when speaking to me, since English doesn't use the vocative case.
Suffice to say that I don't find "it doesn't fit comfortably in the mouth of an English speaker" to be a good basis on which to form conclusions about how Latin speakers would decline their vocabulary.