[pdonis]

> How did the Nazis conquer Germany in your opinion?

By winning the popular vote in an election. No revolution at all.

> The point applies at least there.

Even leaving aside the above, the point would only apply if you are claiming that Nazi Germany promoted "peace and prosperity" in Western Europe.

[ixs]

There’s an argument to be made that the nazi Party never won an actual free election.

https://www.washingtonpost.com/opinions/hitler-was-not-voted... is a good example of the reasoning.

[pdonis]

Sure, just stipulate that any election with results you don't like isn't "an actual free election". No True Scotsman is indeed alive and well.

[ixs]

Uhm. That’s a nice straw man to support the “no true Scotsman” fallacy. Well done. :-)

I did a bit of digging on Wikipedia. And based on the description in https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/March_1933_German_federal_el... I think the claim that the ‘33 election wasn’t a free election isn’t baseless.

Having your fascist enforcers “monitor” the election, helping elderly people to the voting booths and “helping” them to vote correctly all seem to be indicators that the election is fishy.

And even then, the fascist party didn’t even get a majority…