[OJFord]

I was going to say the same thing, but then I realised the initial claim was also about 'cultural unity'. So fair enough, and yes a lot of Europe (or all of it in a few sections) has been culturally unified since time immemorial.

It is a bit more complex though, certainly even today there's some very distinct 'culture' in different regions across India. But also shared themes and roots (e.g. Sanskrit & texts written in it, from which modern 'distinct' languages/beliefs/teachings have been derived) that kumarvr's far better placed to comment on than I am.

[eru]

> [...] has been culturally unified since time immemorial.

Could you be a bit more concrete?

[hnfong]

Not the GP but I'll be more concrete in the other direction.

The Roman Empire is located in Europe, is more recent than "time immemorial", and I'll claim that they didn't regard the various barbarians in Europe outside its sphere of influence as culturally unified with them.

[eru]

It depends a bit on what we mean by 'time immemorial'. See https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Time_immemorial for some possibilities.

In a legal context, 'time immemorial' is often much, much more recent than the Roman Empire, even the Eastern part.