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by alaxsxaq 1445 days ago
You might like to explain how population life-expectancy figures correlate with covid fatality rates in a meaningful way.
3 comments

I'll take this one. The vast majority of COVID risk is stratified in the very elderly and/or those with diseases of modernity / metabolic syndrome type conditions. Both of those categories (age & diseases of modernity) are much more present in wealthy, fat first-world countries than they are 2nd and 3rd world countries. Thus the utility of reducing COVID mortality is much, much lower in those less "advanced" countries.

I'd also add that even if the absolute death weren't lower in the 3rd world, the relative death would. Being able to be freaked out about an average of .3% chance of dying of COVID if infected is a luxury that those countries struggling with malaria, rampant malnutrition, and insufficient non-COVID vaccination don't really have.

Risk of death due to covid is heavily weighted by age.

https://www.cdc.gov/coronavirus/2019-ncov/covid-data/investi...

You might like to explain how population life-expectancy figures correlate with covid fatality rates in a meaningful way.

You might like to explain why they don't, given the death-rate exponentially increases with age.