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by peyton
5349 days ago
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Knowing little about trademark law, I'm wondering if you considered trademark dilution [1]. It appears to contradict most of what you've said, e.g. must operate in the same market and prove the offender is profiting. The rules may be different for famous marks, and Apple's actions could make perfect sense. [1]: http://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Trademark_dilution |
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So in this case, at least, I would think that 'Apple' is an 'ordinary word'.