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by pclmulqdq 1465 days ago
They could construct a sale transaction to themselves, which leads to the charge being mere possession of stolen property. Of course, if the recipient of the property had no knowledge that it was stolen, and just thought they were getting a good deal, I'm not sure a crime would have been committed at all.
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That would also result in the return of the property to the original owner once identified.

Maybe no one gets prosecuted if they’re clever, but they would be compelled to return it (or then face possession of stolen property charges and contempt of court)