Y
Hacker News
new
|
ask
|
show
|
jobs
by
im3w1l
1468 days ago
I'm trying to come up with an example to check my understanding. n (log n)^k for some constant k would qualify right?
1 comments
mauricioc
1468 days ago
Yes. (log n)/(n^epsilon) tends to zero for any positive epsilon, and so log n = n^(o(1)). The same holds for (log n)^k.
link