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by gamblor956 1479 days ago
Generally, the fact of a settlement would preclude him from winning a defamation suit, since introducing the existence of the settlement would satisfy the defendant's bar of establishing affirmatively that there was some sort of actionable sexual harassment at the "more likely than not" threshold for civil cases.

Additionally, the existence of the settlement would likely make any suit for defamation fun afoul of the anti-SLAPP laws.