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by runnerup
1483 days ago
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It’s due to an interaction with the way drug possession is charged and prosecuted. 0.1mg of cocaine in a bag with 2.499 grams of wheat flour is successfully prosecuted as “possession of 2.5 grams of cocaine”. Thus, 0.1mg of fentanyl on 2.499g of heroin can theoretically be prosecuted as “2.5 grams of fentanyl”. I agree that 2.5 grams of fentanyl should not be considered a personal amount. But I also understand why the law is written this way. |
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