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by em500
1496 days ago
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More specific, it's the outstanding debt to disposable (i.e., after tax) yearly income. Even more specific, I it's probably the total outstanding mortgage debt in a country divided by the total disposable household income in the country, including incomes of non-mortage holders and renters. If you think that denominator doesn't make much sense, I largely agree, but it's fairly standard to calculate it that way in macro-economic reports. So I believe the article writer actually misinterpreted that number, writing that it's 150% of homeowners income. |
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