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by im3w1l
1519 days ago
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Ok so first to have a uniform distribution we have to have a bounded set. Maybe you can do something clever with limits but lets not overcomplicate things. Lets say we have 0 <= v < 10. Define E = v^2. Then 0 <= e < 100 Uniformity of v would mean that p(0 <= v < 1) = 1 / 10 Uniformity of E would mean that p(0 <= E < 1) = 1 / 100 But by construction p(0 <= v < 1) = p(0 <= E < 1). So it's not possible for both to be uniform. |
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But this does bring up a good point. H(X||Y) = H(f(X)||f(Y)) for any bijective f if the distributions are discrete. When they are continuous this is not true, even with a bijective f. For example f = x^2 doesn't work even though it yields a binary distribution. Interestingly however, affine transformations work.