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by scottjad
5362 days ago
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Your characterization of the pie fallacy is wrong. pg: "I can remember believing, as a child, that if a few rich people had all the money, it left less for everyone else. Many people seem to continue to believe something like this well into adulthood. This fallacy is usually there in the background when you hear someone talking about how x percent of the population have y percent of the wealth. If you plan to start a startup, then whether you realize it or not, you're planning to disprove the Pie Fallacy." |
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Unfortunately, although it is possible to do so without taking it from others, taking it from others is still a viable way to do it. Further, its also possible to destroy wealth. And its possible for the destruction of wealth to be asymmetrical.
So is the current financial state an example of wealth creation, wealth transfer, or wealth destruction?
I'm looking at the national debt, the median house price, and the DJIA and I'm not seeing "wealth creation". What leads you choose "pie fallacy" as your answer?