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by jbay808
1520 days ago
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You seem pretty convinced. Let me see if you're talking about the same pedantic distinction that oh_my_goodness was. A: "an urn containing either a white ball or a black ball". B: "I notice that the ball in the urn A is white". I would say that initially the entropy of our ball-urn system is 1 bit, and that with observation B, we have reduced the entropy of our ball-urn system to 0 bits. But if you are going to take the view that even knowing the ball in this particular urn is actually white doesn't change the fact that the entropy of <<"an urn containing either a white ball or a black ball">> is 1 bit and not 0, and that that's the entropy that we're discussing, then I won't argue about it any further. Except for the obligatory xkcd: https://xkcd.com/221/ |
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The entropy of the system was always 0 bits. Knowledge is irrelevant.
If the urn actually contained nothing and would materialize a black or a white ball randomly then this can occur with or without your knowledge. When the ball materializes and nothing more can be done THEN the entropy has changed. Because there's no more possible microstates.
You not having knowledge about microstates DOES NOT change available microstates. You seem to think that if you don't know about something, anything goes.
You're really arguing abstract philosophy. Did a tree in the forest fall if no one was around to see it? Yes it did dude. Your knowledge of it has nothing to do with whether it fell. Same with entropy. And if you deny the fact that a tree in the forest never fell, then you're the one going off onto a pedantic tangent.